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Bond Value goes higher to align yield with lower interest rates

Wealth Management Analyst was asked...March 14, 2019

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By stock figures and getting updated with all economic policies

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Online newsfeed and news paper.

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I tried rooftop slushie mentioned above and it was pretty helpful. I recommend it. Less

Private Wealth Management was asked...October 26, 2009

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alternatively, you could try simplifying the equation by multiplying and dividing it by its complex conjugate. [sqrt(x^2+x) - x] * [sqrt(x^2+x) + x] / [sqrt(x^2 + x) + x] after some algebra, it simplifies out to x / [sqrt(x^2 + x) + x]. If you factor out an x from the denominator, it simplifies again to 1 / [sqrt(1 + 1/x)+1], which clearly goes to 1/2 as x-> infinity Less

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No way you interviewed for PWM and got this as a question. PWM isn't even that quanty. Less

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Taylor expansion for the first term: x (1 + 1/x)^(1/2) = x + 1/2 -1/4 (1/x) + .... Is neater than david's answer i guess.... Less

Private Wealth Management was asked...October 26, 2009

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xi-i is a martingale with x0-0 = 0 so we have 2^2+2-E[i] = 0 which gives E[i] = 6 Less

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I have an alternative to Charles's answer from the point of view of conditional expectations. The formula is that E[X] = sums of E[X|A] * P(A) where E[X|A] is the conditional expectation of X given event A. Let's consider the following possibilities. If the first toss gives T, then the expected value of tosses under this condition must be 1 time more than the original expectation. Similarly, if one analyzes the case when the first toss gives H, then two possibilities emerge. Either you have a second toss of H, which gives exactly 2, or you have a second toss of T, which gives a conditioned expectation to be added by two. In a summary we have x = (x+1)*P(T) + (x+2)*P(HT) + 2*P(HH) Solve to get x = 6. Less

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The previous answer is incorrect. The correct answer is 6. This can be modeled by a simple markov chain: state 0: [1/2 1/2 0] state 1: [1/2 0 1/2] state 2: [0 0 1] where state 0 is having 0 heads in a row (i.e. back at square 1), state 1 is having 1 heads in a row, and state 2 is having 2 heads in a row a.k.a the final state Since we are solving for expected time to reach state 2, we have to solve the system of equations: t0=1+1/2*t0+1/2*t1 t1=1 + 1/2*t0 + 1/2*t2 t2=0 <--if you are already in state 2 i.e. you already have 2 consecutive heads, then you do not need to flip any additional coins because you are already done. Solving the system gets you t0=6. Alternatively, you could use the equation E(x)=(1-p^2)/(p^2*(1-p)), which also gives you 6 when you plug in p=.5 Less

Private Wealth Management was asked...October 11, 2019

Wealth Management was asked...July 11, 2017

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Rathbones main competitors are, Schroders, Aviva insurance, Tenet to name a few.

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Who are Rathbone's main competitors?

Wealth Management was asked...May 27, 2016

International Graduate - Wealth Management was asked...March 13, 2015

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Subjective answers...I was honest, that's all.

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its depend on favorites ,

Wealth Management Intern was asked...October 30, 2009

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You would have to figure out the customer's assumed risk right?

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Invest 10% of portfolio in USMO. Price $10.46, P/E ratio of 3.41, 9.56% annual dividend yield. $3.07 EPS. Great technical indicators: Bollinger bands, low and fast stockastics, etc. Favorable reviews by leading equity analysts. Company deals with government contracts in many areas. Government is growing, and so will the company's profits! SOLD!!! Less

Private Wealth Management Intern was asked...November 6, 2010

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